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Quiz 3: IFR Departures

Wed Oct 21 2026

Takeoff and climb, easy. What about in IMC, when you can't see any obstacles? Often we look at the climb gradient and go "yeah my airplane can clear that." And on an ideal conditions day it can, but what happens when the weather is less than ideal? And what factors actually influence your climb gradient anyway?

Question 1

Climb gradient is directly dependent on which of the following?

Ground speed (GS)Indicated airspeed (IAS)True airspeed (TAS)Calibrated airspeed (CAS)

Question 2

A published departure procedure requires a climb gradient of 350 ft/NM. What does this mean in practical terms?

The aircraft must climb at 350 ft/min regardless of groundspeedThe aircraft must climb at a pitch angle that produces 350 ft of altitude per minute of flightThe aircraft must gain 350 ft of altitude for every nautical mile travelled over the groundThe aircraft must reach 350 ft AGL within one nautical mile of the departure end of the runway

Question 3

An aeroplane is climbing through pressure altitude 4,000 ft, OAT +10°C. Its indicated airspeed is 97 KIAS, giving a true airspeed of 105 KTAS. There is a 10 kt tailwind on the departure track, giving a groundspeed of 115 kt. The rate of climb is 900 ft/min. Which speed should be used to calculate the achieved climb gradient, and what is the result?

IAS of 97 kt; gradient = 556 ft/NMTAS of 105 kt; gradient = 514 ft/NMGroundspeed of 115 kt; gradient = 470 ft/NMAn average of TAS and GS of 110 kt; gradient = 491 ft/NM

Question 4

Why does a tailwind worsen the climb gradient for a given rate of climb?

A tailwind reduces engine power outputA tailwind increases groundspeed, so more horizontal distance is covered for the same vertical gainA tailwind reduces the true airspeed of the aircraftA tailwind increases drag on the airframe, reducing rate of climb

Question 5

An aeroplane is departing on a procedure that requires 280 ft/NM to 3,000 ft MSL. The field elevation is 357 ft MSL and there is a 10 kt tailwind throughout the climb. At which point in the climb should the pilot evaluate the achieved gradient, and why?

At field elevation, since the tailwind is weakest closest to the ground and performance is best thereAt the mid-point of the climb, since this gives a representative average performance figureAt the point where the aeroplane enters cloud, since that is where visual terrain avoidance endsAt 3,000 ft MSL - the top of the obstacle clearance segment — since density altitude is highest, rate of climb is lowest, and the tailwind worsens groundspeed at altitude where TAS is already higher

Question 6

An aeroplane departs from an aerodrome at 357 ft MSL. The OAT at the field is +12°C and a temperature inversion exists in the cloud layer above, producing an OAT of +20°C at 6,000 ft MSL. The standard atmosphere OAT at 6,000 ft is +3°C. The standard lapse rate from the field gives an OAT of approximately +0.7°C at 6,000 ft. Compared to the standard atmosphere, what is the effect of the inversion on density altitude at 6,000 ft?

Density altitude is higher than in the standard atmosphere because the inversion produces an OAT of +20°C against an ISA value of +3°C - an ISA deviation of +17°C adding approximately 2,040 ft above the pressure altitudeThere is no way to calculate the density altitude without the altimeter setting, as you need to use the pressure altitude in a density altitude calculationDensity altitude is lower than in the standard atmosphere because the surface temperature of +12°C is below ISADensity altitude is the same as in the standard atmosphere since inversions only affect the distribution of cloud

Question 7

An aeroplane equipped with a turbocharged engine is more able to maintain its rate of climb with increasing altitude (up to the critical altitude) than a similar aeroplane equipped with a normally aspirated engine because _______. The performance of the aeroplane with the turbocharged aeroplane still does decline somewhat because ___________?

The turbocharger increases fuel flow with altitude, compensating for thinner air; there is an increase in exhaust back pressure below the critical altitudeThe turbocharged aeroplane uses a different propeller that is more efficient at high altitude; decreasing air density still increases aerodynamic drag, causing some reduction in ROCThe turbocharger reduces the weight of the aeroplane as altitude increases, partially offsetting the power loss; there is an increase in exhaust back pressureThe turbocharger compresses intake air to maintain sea-level manifold pressure up to the critical altitude, largely preserving engine power output; decreasing air density still increases aerodynamic drag, causing some reduction in ROC

Question 8

A departure procedure requires 300 ft/NM to 4,000 ft MSL. Once the aeroplane reaches 4,000 ft, what gradient obligation remains?

None - the gradient obligation ends at 4,000 ft and the aeroplane may climb at any rate thereafterThe standard IFR gradient of 200 ft/NM must be maintained from 4,000 ft to the enroute MEAThe aeroplane must maintain 300 ft/NM all the way to the cruise altitudeThe gradient obligation transfers to ATC, who provide radar terrain clearance above 4,000 ft

Question 9

A pilot applies a 20% personal safety factor to a published departure gradient requirement of 250 ft/NM. What is the resulting target gradient the aeroplane should achieve, and what does the safety factor account for?

200 ft/NM - the safety factor reduces the requirement to provide a buffer below the published minimum300 ft/NM - the safety factor accounts for an aeroplane not at factory performance, real-world pilot technique, and weather forecast uncertainty250 ft/NM - no safety factor is necessary since published gradients already include a built-in performance margin500 ft/NM - Transport Canada requires a 100% safety factor on all departure gradient calculations

Question 10

In IMC with a cloud base of 400 ft AGL, an engine failure occurs in a single-engine aeroplane during the departure climb. What is the most accurate description of the pilot's options?

Options are extremely limited - the pilot will emerge from cloud at or below circuit height with almost no time to assess terrain or select a landing areaThe pilot should continue climbing on reduced power to reach VMC above the cloud, then assess optionsThe pilot should immediately turn back to the runway, as this is always possible from any altitudeThe pilot has good options because 400 ft AGL provides sufficient altitude to glide to a suitable landing area

Question 11

Which combination of weather products is most appropriate for planning the climb gradient on an IFR departure?

METARs and upper wind reports (FBs) as these provide the most current conditions applicable to the takeoff and departure TAFs and GFAs – the TAFs will provide the data relevant to the aerodrome itself while the GFAs will provide the upper level wind conditions relevant to the climb to the applicable MEA METARs and TAFs for initial climb conditions near the aerodrome; upper wind forecasts (FD/FBs) for the remainder of the climb to altitude; and GFAs to assess icing at altitude that may degrade climb performance Pilot reports (PIREPs) only - these provide real-time in-flight conditions from other pilots

Question 12

Published instrument departure procedures are based on which of the following standard assumptions about the departing aeroplane?

The aeroplane crosses the departure end of the runway at 50 ft AGL, begins turning immediately after liftoff, and climbs at 300 ft/NM as a standard gradientThe aeroplane crosses the departure end of the runway at 35 ft AGL, begins turning at 200 ft AGL, and climbs at 150 ft/NM as a standard gradientThe aeroplane crosses the departure end of the runway at 50 ft AGL, does not turn until 500 ft AGL, and climbs at 200 ft/NMThe aeroplane crosses the departure end of the runway at 35 ft AGL, does not initiate any turn until reaching 400 ft AGL, and then climbs at the standard gradient of 200 ft/NM

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